Consider a linear operator \(\mathbf{T}\) on a finite-dimensional vector space
\(V\).
(a) Show that there exists a polynomial \(p\) such that
\(p(\mathbf{T})=\mathbf{0}\). Hint: Take a basis
\(B=\left\\{\left|a_{i}\right\rangle\right\\}_{i=1}^{N}\) and consider the
vectors \(\left\\{\mathbf{T}^{k}\left|a_{1}\right\rangle\right\\}_{k=0}^{M}\)
for large enough \(M\) and conclude that there exists a polynomial
\(p_{1}(\mathbf{T})\) such that \(p_{1}(\mathbf{T})\left|a_{1}\right\rangle=0\).
Do the same for \(\left|a_{2}\right\rangle\), etc. Now take the product of all
such polynomials.
(b) From (a) conclude that for large enough \(n, \mathbf{T}^{n}\) can be written
as a linear combination of smaller powers of \(\mathbf{T}\).
(c) Now conclude that any infinite series in \(\mathbf{T}\) collapses to a
polynomial in \(\mathbf{T}\).